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PRMIA 8011(クレジットおよびカウンターパーティマネージャー(CCRM)証明書)認定試験は、クレジットおよびカウンターパーティリスク管理の分野における専門家の知識とスキルを検証するグローバルに認められた資格情報です。この認定試験は、信用リスク、カウンターパーティリスク、および銀行、金融機関、およびその他の組織におけるその他の種類の金融リスクの管理を担当する個人向けに設計されています。
PRMIA 8011:信用とカウンターパーティーマネージャー(CCRM)証明書試験は、クレジットとカウンターパーティー活動に関連するリスクを効果的に評価および管理するための知識とスキルを専門家が習得するための国際認証プログラムです。この証明書は、クレジットリスク分析と評価、リスク管理戦略、カウンターパーティークレジットリスク管理の実践的な理解を提供します。これは、金融機関、銀行、保険会社、格付け機関、規制当局で働く経験豊富な専門家を対象とした高度な認定プログラムです。
PRMIA 8011クレジットおよびカウンターパーティーマネージャー(CCRM)証明書試験は、リスク管理のベストプラクティスを促進する非営利団体であるProfessional Risk Managers' International Association(PRMIA)によって提供されています。試験は、クレジットリスク管理に関与するプロフェッショナル、クレジットアナリスト、クレジットリスクマネージャー、ポートフォリオマネージャー、およびリスクエグゼクティブを対象としています。また、クレジットリスク管理のキャリアを追求したい個人にも適しています。
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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam 認定 8011 試験問題 (Q36-Q41):
質問 # 36
A cumulative accuracy plot:
正解:A
解説:
A cumulative accuracy plot measures the accuracy of credit ratings assigned by rating agencies by considering the relative rankings of obligors according to the ratings given. Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
質問 # 37
Which of the following are considered properties of a 'coherent' risk measure:
I. Monotonicity
II. Homogeneity
III. Translation Invariance
IV. Sub-additivity
正解:A
解説:
All of the properties described are the properties of a 'coherent' risk measure.
Monotonicity means that if a portfolio's future value is expected to be greater than that of another portfolio, its risk should be lower than that of the other portfolio. For example, if the expected return of an asset (or portfolio) is greater than that of another, the first asset must have a lower risk than the other. Another example: between two options if the first has a strike price lower than the second, then the first option will always have a lower risk if all other parameters are the same. VaRsatisfies this property.
Homogeneity is easiest explained by an example: if you double the size of a portfolio, the risk doubles. The linear scaling property of a risk measure is called homogeneity. VaR satisfies this property.
Translation invariance means adding riskless assets to a portfolio reduces total risk. So if cash (which has zero standard deviation and zero correlation with other assets) is added to a portfolio, the risk goes down. A risk measure should satisfy this property, and VaR does.
Sub-additivity means that the total risk for a portfolio should be less than the sum of its parts. This is a property that VaR satisfies most of the time, but not always. As an example, VaR may not be sub-additive for portfolios that have assets with discontinuous payoffs close to the VaR cutoff quantile.
質問 # 38
Which of the following are true:
I. Monte Carlo estimates of VaR can be expected to be identical or very close to those obtained using analytical methods if both are based on the same parameters.
II. Non-normality of returns does not pose a problem if we use Monte Carlo simulations based upon parameters and a distribution assumed to be normal.
III. Historical VaR estimates do not require any distribution assumptions.
IV. Historical simulations by definition limit VaR estimation only to the range of possibilities that have already occurred.
正解:B
解説:
Statement I is true. If a Monte Carlo simulation is based upon the same parameters as used for analytical VaR, and enough number of simulations are carried out, we would get the same results as with analytical VaR.
Statement II is false. We cannot use Monte Carlo simulations using parameters based upon a normal assumption when the underlying distribution is not normal. For example, if a return stream is based upon say a uniform distribution, we cannot use a simulation based upon drawings from a normal distribution even though we use the same mean and standard deviation.
Statement III is true. This is the advantage of historical simulations - no assumptions are necessary.
(Historical simulations however often suffer from the great disadvantage of the paucity of data that would cover all possibilities.) Statement IV is true. The results of historical simulations are limited to the data they are based upon.
質問 # 39
Financial institutions need to take volatility clustering into account:
I. To avoid taking on an undesirable level of risk
II. To know the right level of capital they need to hold
III. To meet regulatory requirements
IV. To account for mean reversion in returns
正解:A
解説:
Volatility clustering leads to levels of current volatility that can be significantly different from long run averages. When volatility is running high, institutions need to shed risk, and when it is running low, they can afford to increase returns by taking on more risk for a given amount of capital. An institution's response to changes in volatility can be either to adjust risk, or capital, or both. Accounting for volatility clustering helps institutions manage their risk and capital and therefore statements I and II are correct.
Regulatory requirements do not require volatility clustering to be taken into account (at least not yet).
Therefore statement III is not correct, and neither is IV which is completely unrelated to volatility clustering.
質問 # 40
Which of the following statements are true:
I. Common scenarios for stress tests include the 1997 Asian crisis, the Russian default in 1998 and other well known economic stress situations.
II. Stress tests provide the assurance that an institution's worst case losses will be covered.
III. Performing stress tests is highly recommended but is not mandated under Basel II.
IV. Historical events can be modeled quite accurately as they have defined start and end dates.
正解:A
解説:
Stress tests can cover known events, but since the future is unknown, and new events may be entirely different from what has happened in the past, they provide no assurance that an institution's worst case losses would be covered. Hence II is false.
Stress testing is required to be performed as part of Basel II, and therefore III is false.
Historical events do not have sharply defined start and end dates. Often, even after a crises ends, its after effects may continue to affect the markets for a long time. In such cases, it may be difficult to define the start and end of the crises. In many cases, the crises may persist for months or even years, making it difficult for the risk manager to identify a time period that covers the essence of the crises, and yet is focused enough to constitute a plausible scenario. Therefore IV is false too. Only I is true, and the correct answer is Choice 'b'.
質問 # 41
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